RagTop
Old Grumpy
I can't seem to get a straight answer from anyone on this subject, so I'll throw it open for discussion. I live in Placer County, CA and I have gas service from PG&E. I am told that the responsible thing to do is to keep my thermostat at 68* to minimize my gas utilization and attendant costs. At 68* this house is like a big ice box. 72* is far more comfortable. My house is a single story with 2,489 sq. ft. of floor space and 9' ceilings. I believe that calculates to 22,401 cu. ft. of volume. My thermostat is a programmable set back type and, for the purpose of argument, comes on whenever the house drops below 68* by, say, 1. My contention is that the only difference between being set at 68 and 72* is the cost of raising the house from its nighttime temperature setting of 50* by an additional 4. I also contend that, whether the thermostat is set at 68 or 72, the cost of heating the house during the day and evening should be the same since, in either case, it is heating 22,401 cu. ft. of air by 1F and the house loses heat at the same rate whether the interior temp is 68* or 72. I have looked at several sources and I have determined that air weighs 0.075 lbs. per cu. ft. and that it takes 0.24 BTUs to heat a pound of air by 1F. By my calculation it would mean that I am using 403 BTUs to heat my home by one degree either way, and an additional 1,612 BTUs every morning to get to the 72* level in the morning. Am I missing something obvious here? I have no idea what PG&E charges for a BTU of heat but I do know that natural gas is in glut supply with the boom in American oil production.